This is my response concerning Romans 5

Romans 5

Hello Brandon, this is my response to you concerning Romans 5.

In your response you state, “Adam received the blame here, as Adam was supposed to be the man of the family, but he let his family down by allowing Satan into it.” A question naturally arises here, “Would Adam take the blame if he had not eaten the fruit? Why does the scripture state, “… as by one man…” and not “…as by one woman…”? Doesn’t the Greek distinguish between man and woman? When God sees/views the institution of marriage does He see two independent entities or he sees one flesh, one entity?

You use Ezekiel 18:20 to state that we do not inherit sin from Adam. I will ask the following questions. If individuals are born without sin, why is it necessary for Christ to attorn for all men? Why is Christ the only way if there is potential for hundreds of other people to live a sinless life? Why do babies surfer death if they are sinless? We know that the wages of sin is death and death came as a result of sin, and the sting of death is sin. If individuals did not inherit sin from Adam (the Adamic nature, the sin nature), it should thus follow that there shouldn’t be any infant deaths since they are sinless. One should experience death as soon as they receive and break a law directly from God since they are independent of their ancestors.

You then go on to explain Romans 5:13 and state that, “…sin was not held accountable until God provided a rule against what He considered a sin.” I would ask you likewise to continue reading verse 14, “Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam’s transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.” If sin is not imputed when there is no law, why do we yet have death among the so-called other races that come not from Adam? Likewise, why do the progeny of Adam suffer death when the law was only given to Adam? We shouldn’t observe death until a particular law is given to these people in order to suffer death when they break the law, otherwise it would appear that sin is being imputed when there is actually no law. So what law was there from Adam to Moses that necessitated the death of these individuals?

Let’s go a step further. In the previous discussion you asked who sinned first, Adam or Eve? Now I continue to ask, who sinned first, Eve or the serpent? So, what law did the serpent break to suffer the consequences executed by God? And when was this law broken?

I conclude with this, if Adam is not the Federal head of the entire human race, how can Christ be the federal head of the so many different races with different Adams (the first ones)? Either Christ is the kinsman redeemer of the entire human race or he is only a kinsman redeemer of the race of Adam. As such, all the other races are left to wait on their own kinsmen redeemer as those of Adam received theirs.

If we all came from adam where did blacks and Asians come from? But the hebrew in gen 1 vs gen 2 is diff saying mankind then the man a specific man. I appreciate all your info theo you take make me dig and think. Thank you.

  • Rom 3:23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;

  • Ecc 7:20 For there is not a just man upon earth, that doeth good, and sinneth not.

  • Gal 3:22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.

Ezekiel 18:20 is not the only Scripture, but it plainly says, we do not inherit our parents sin.

  • Deut 24:16 The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the children be put to death for the fathers: every man shall be put to death for his own sin.

  • 2Ki 14:6 But the children of the murderers he slew not: according unto that which is written in the book of the law of Moses, wherein the LORD commanded, saying, The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, nor the children be put to death for the fathers; but every man shall be put to death for his own sin.

Then we have:

  • Rom 2:6 Who will render to every man according to his deeds:

  • Rev 22:12 And, behold, I come quickly; and my reward is with me, to give every man according as his work shall be.

You are confusing physical death with spiritual death which is eternal. We’re talking about the death that Jesus explained in Matthew 10:28.

There is only one redeemer theo, it is Jesus Christ, and all races are saved through Him as the Scriptures declare.

  • Gal 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.

  • Gal 3:29 And if ye be Christ’s, then are ye Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise.

  • Rom 4:13 For the promise, that he should be the heir of the world, was not to Abraham, or to his seed, through the law, but through the righteousness of faith.

  • Rom 4:14 For if they which are of the law be heirs, faith is made void, and the promise made of none effect:

If we believe in Jesus, no matter our race, we are saved. Moreover, “the LORD seeth not as man seeth; for man looketh on the outward appearance, but the LORD looketh on the heart,” (1 Sam 16:7).


Hello Jeffrey, thank you for appreciating the information and the queries. Yes, indeed, as students of scripture we are commanded to study and think on the Word (2 Timothy 2:15).

Now, as to your question, the answer is, humorously, Blacks and Asians came from Adam, if we all came from Adam. At any rate, in all seriousness now, let me point you briefly to this article titled Creationism, Noah’s Flood, And Race by Paul Braterman posted in 3 Quarks Daily. In all clarity it should be noted that there is only one race when it comes to man, the human race (think about the implication of this, is there a race that is not human?). What we call “Race” today (Black, White, Asian, Aboriginal, Caucasian, Latino, Mongoloid, etc and any mixture of it) is a social construct devised to sustain prejudice and/or superiority complex (every time it is abused). It is a result of the sin nature that is with man. To put it in biblical context, instead of “Races” as viewed today, the word should be Nations. And that too not implying the political boundaries between countries. I mean nations as a group or collection of people with a common ancestor, what we call today, Tribes.

As an example, 100-200 years from now, your offspring and descendants will be of the tribe of Jeffrey, Jeffreyites, if you choose. If you have a brother, his offspring can also form a tribe just like you have the 10 tribes of Israel which collectively can be called Jacobites (better yet, Israelites after his name change). You can extend this, if you wanted to, Isaacites (which would included the Esauites, correctly put as Edomites). As you go up the family tree you can now have/look at the Abrahamites (which would encompass the descendants of Ishmael as well, making the Tribe of Ishmael). Now move up the line further and you have Terahites (from Terah), Nahorites (from Nahor, son of Serug), which would lead you to Serugites, and then you can go up to Reu, Peleg, Eber, Salah (Shelah), Arpachshad (or Cainan – another interesting topic here), and finally Shem, father of all the Semitic nations, aka, Races. Why go through all this trouble? At this point is where I implore you to read and study the descendants of Ham, and likewise of Japheth and find out how they migrated and which places they went to. The Table of Nations in Genesis 10 is a good start and a good summary can be found at freepages_rootsweb_com (the underscores are meant to be dots. Search for THE TABLE OF NATIONS (GENEALOGY OF MANKIND) AND THE ORIGIN OF RACES (HISTORY OF MAN) . (Sorry I am not allowed to add links in my responses).
In addition feel free to read Noah’s Three Sons by Arthur C. Custance whenever you have time. It offers some good insight on this subject.

In fact, understanding that all these nations came from the sons of Noah serves to show you as well that the flood was not just a local flood as implied by Brandon in the article Was Noah’s Flood Global?, but it was Global for all the so called Races mentioned today can trace their origin back to Noah (historically and scientifically). There is no nation you will find on earth today that does not have Noah as their ancestor. You can simply say we are all Noahites making up the Tribe of Noah. If this were not true, then one can say with absolute certainty that the flood was local to make room for the lines of other races to continue their existence. Or, it could be assumed that the other races also had their own corresponding Noah accounts in their own local. We know this is not the case both historically and scientifically.

Now let us get to the Hebrew of Genesis 1 and Genesis 2 regarding “mankind” and “a specific man”.

This section was discussed by Brandon under the topic, Did We All Come From Adam And Eve?.

For neatness and clarity, I am not going to address the subject of Race as it has been discussed above. What is discussed here is the clarity in the language for “man” or “mankind” as used in the article and the reasoning used thereof.

In the section titled, The Word Man, the translation of adam is given, the particle “et” and the article “Ha” are also explained. That is;

Hebrew: אָדָם”, English:‘âdâm

Meaning, “man” or “mankind”.

Hebrew: האָדָם”, English:Ha‘âdâm

With the “article” meaning, “the man” or “the mankind”.

Hebrew: אֵת-האָדָם”, English:‘êth-Ha‘âdâm

With the “particle” and “article” meaning and more specific, “the man” or “the mankind”.

After establishing this the next section asks how the races come into existence? The answer given is that this happens during the Sixth Day of Genesis, Genesis 1:26. And what is the reasoning behind this? I quote,

“ As we have learned and can see in the manuscripts, “man” in Hebrew is “אָדָם” and can mean either “man” or “mankind”.

However, God was discussing the creation of “man” and called “man,” “**them**,” plural. This helps us identify, we are talking about all of mankind, all of the races.”

The logical fallacy made here is called the A Priori Argument, also known as Proof Texting. The context of the scripture being discussed is not considered at all and Hermeneutics is completely forgotten. A single portion of scripture is brought forth and from the use of a single word “them” a conclusion is drawn to mean that “adam” used here implies “mankind”.

Here is a counter argument. The word “Elohim” is plural, right? Since Elohim (a compound unity) says, “…let us…” in the same verse, are we to conclude that Elohim is many Gods since us is plural? I don’t think so.

Furthermore, if you continue reading verse 27 of Genesis 1, you discover that it says, “So God created man[adam] in his own image, in the image of God created he him[otow]; male and female created he them[otam].” We observe here that instead of having “them”- the plural, “him” – the singular is used. Otherwise we would have, “ So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he them; male and female created he them.” This would make absolute sense, but this is not the rendering of the Hebrew. Why is this so?

Now one will ask the question, “So why does God say “them” instead of him in Genesis 1:26?” A critical eye at this point would be quick to observe that in Genesis 1:26 the word where “them” is found is actually “weyirdu” – from radah, meaning to have dominion. It is a verb, qal, conjuctive imperfect, third person masculine plural. It is very different from “otam” – which is a direct object marker, third person masculine plural as used in Genesis 1:27. That being said, the use of “them”- plural in connection to dominion has always troubled people but we are not left without an answer. If you turn to Malachi 2:10-16. The subject of discussion is divorce. Husbands are discouraged from putting away their wives because the moment husband and wife come together, they become one flesh, one entity (a compound unity – echad, Genesis 2:24) Special attention to verse 15 now, looking at the use of the word echad and in context with divorce, knowing that the husband and wife are not separate entities but one, it can be reasoned that before Eve was ever formed/built (banah), her soul was in Adam (And did not he make one? Yet had he the residue of the spirit. Malachi 2:15). And so, from echad we can see why Elohim (God, who is echad) made (asah) adam (man, who is echad) – Genesis 1:26, and also says, “…and let them have dominion (weyirdu)…” granted they (male and female) are one flesh (adam). So follows verse 27 of Genesis 1 in that same manner where man is created (bara).

One can now also take Malachi 2:15further in this argument of different races being made on the sixth day and state that if God did not create only Adam (from whom all the “Races”, which we know now is actually Nations, come from) on the sixth day, then there were more than one Adam (the first ones). As such, Adam is not the 1st adam. Also, there were more than one Eve (assuming husband and wife are not one flesh – separate entities). This paves way to the existence of more than one potential godly seed of which Christ is but one of those potential seeds, for each so called “Race” should have their own representative to atone for sin. But if one man atoned for all of mankind (which is correctly the human race), then were all descendants of Adam who is adam; for he is the first of the human race while Christ is the last Adam!!! See 1 Corinthians 15:45-50. The first of a new creation!!!

This is where I conclude, I hope that is clear enough and allows you to harmonize Genesis 1 and 2 without creating more challenges than we are trying to solve.


In your response as to why it is necessary for Christ to attorn for all men, it can therefore be concluded that all beings, be it adults or infants have sin.

In your response to Ezekiel 18:20, you are ignoring the fact that the consequences from the fall of Adam were passed down to all of His progeny. No where do you see his progeny starting off afresh as did Adam until the Millennium is finally setup by Christ himself. But even yet still, mankind will choose to rebel at the end of the millennium.

In your response to the wages of sin is death…, I am not confusing physical death with spiritual death. On the contrary am pointing out the fact that physical death is as a result of spiritual death. Put another way, did God create Adam to die a physical death or was this a consequence from the fall? If Adam had not suffered spiritual death, he wouldn’t have seen physical death, Genesis 2:17 (Special attention to the Hebrew translated “surely, you shall die”). Reference this to John 3 when Jesus discusses with Nicodemus the need for one to be born again (born a second time). Why? For we are all born spiritually dead. Where did this come from?

In your response to Federal headship, it is true, all nations are saved through Him because there is biblically only one human race, which race becomes a new creation the moment individuals are born again. That is why in this new creation – Race, you do not see different races in it given that pattern of things. When individuals are born again you do not here the notion that one is a Black believer, another a White believer, and another an Asian believer because they are descended from different Adams.

I think you should investigate the Old Testament concerning the law of Kinsman Redeemer. If an individual was not biologically related to the person they were going to redeem, that individual could not redeem that said person. If you agree that there is only one redeemer, it thus follows that what you call races are all related biologically. Which is true because they all come from Adam, who makes up the human race.

And I agree with you, If we believe in Jesus Christ, no matter our race – aka nationality, we are saved. Moreover, “the LORD seeth not as man seeth; for man looketh on the outward appearance, but the LORD looketh on the heart,”

And indeed, man looketh on the outward appearance and so comes up with the term Race. So here then you have another affirmation that the notion of Race is derived by man, not God as you are teaching concerning the 6th day of creation. Simply put, God made Adam on the sixth day and from Adam came all the Races(nations) that man sees, for man looketh on the outward appearance (color and other external features). Thank you for pointing that out!

That being said, I still call your attention to the fact that you have still chosen to selectively answer the entire response. I find this very imprudent.

Clear as mud! my good gentleman. Again I say, take your bible and go into your closet and shut the door. Open to the gospel and read, pray that the holy spirit come into your heart, Just that simple! The old law passed away. I simply ‘believe’ through faith. If you must have all of the facts, there is no faith. No two men will ever agree on all things. It’s not in them.
Four men wrote an account of the gospel. all four accounts are different. But I get the overall picture. I can sort it out from there.


Isaiah 43:18 It was so appropriate that I read this within an hour of posting on your comment. Amazing how that works.